Đề kiểm tra giữa học kì I môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 6 - Năm học 2022-2023 - Trường THCS Quán Toan (Có file nghe + đáp án)

Nội dung text: Đề kiểm tra giữa học kì I môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 6 - Năm học 2022-2023 - Trường THCS Quán Toan (Có file nghe + đáp án)

1. DISTRICT PEOPLE’S COMMITTEE OF HONG BANG QUÁN TOAN SECONDARY SCHOOL Date of test: November 2022 THE FIRST MID- TERM TEST Mã phách School year: 2022- 2023 Subject: English 7- Time : 60’ Họ và tên . Giám thị 1 Giám thị 2 Lớp 7 .SBD: .
2. DISTRICT PEOPLE’S COMMITTEE OF HONG BANG QUÁN TOAN SECONDARY SCHOOL Date of test: November , 2022 THE FIRST MID- TERM TEST School year: 2022- 2023 Subject: English 7- Time : 60’ Điểm bằng số Điểm bằng chữ Chữ ký GK1 Chữ ký GK2 Mã phách PART ONE: LISTENING I. Listen to the passage Mark’s hobbies and interests and fill in each blank with no more than TWO words (1,25pt) Mark has a lot of hobbies and interests. He usually (1) ___ up early, so he can jog before school. After school, Mark often rides a horse at the (2) ___ club near his home. Sometimes he goes riding on Sunday afternoons. He aslo loves music. He goes to (3) ___ on Wednesday and Saturday evenings. On Saturday mornings, he usually waters the plants and trees in the garden with his mum. He seldom watches TV (4) ___ he likes doing things outside. He has a lot of friends and he plays football with them twice a week. He’s a (5) ___! II. Listen to the conversation. Then decide whether the statements below are True (T) or False (F). (1.25 pts) 6. ___ I volunteer because I can make a difference in our community. 7. ___ We can encourage people to protect the environment and our community will be a harder place 8 . ___ I’ve made many friends, and I feel much more self- confident. 9. ___ Volunteering is special to me because I can’t help others 10. ___ It’s special because I can see how happy the children are when they learn. PART TWO: LANGUAGE I. Choose the word whose underlined is pronounced differently from that of the rest. (0.25pt) 11. A. worked B. watched C. clapped D. decided III. Choose the word whose main stress is placed differently from the others. (0.25pt) 12. A. patient B. donate C. affect D. provide II. Choose the correct word or phrase to complete each of the sentences. (1,25pt) 13. Let’s help the street children because they have bad ___. A. living conditions B. ways of life C. earnings D. live 14. We should try to keep everything around us clean and then flu will find it ___ to spread. A. difficulty B. difficult C. difficultly D. difficulties 15. Robert: “Would you like to eat out with me this weekend?” Mary: “___”. A. No, I won’t B. Yes, I will C. No, I wouldn’t, thanks D. Yes, I’d love to 16. Watching too much television is not good ___ you or your eyes A. with B. to C. for D. at 17. She looks very tired. She should work ___ or she will get sick. A. well B. less C. more D. enough IV. Put the verbs in the brackets into the correct form.(0,75pt) 18. ___ (they/eat) fried chicken last night? 19. My parents ___ (not go) everyday. They only do it three times a week. 20. You can use eyedrops and ___ (do) eye exercises for your tired eyes. PART THREE: READING I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to fill each blank in the following passage. (1.25pt) Breakfast is (21) ___ most important meal of the day. It provides the nutrients your body needs for good health, the calories it needs for (22) ___ and helps to maintain your blood sugar level. Studies have shown that people who don’t have breakfast have a low blood sugar level and are often slow, tired, hungry and unable to concentrate. Surprisingly, breakfast actually (23) ___ a part in weight control. It’s easier to lose weight if you eat in the morning rather than later in the day. (24) ___ the day’s calories into three meals helps take off weight more efficiently than skipping breakfast (25) ___ having two larger meals a day does. 21. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
3. 22. A. energy B. strength C. power D. effort 23. A. loses B. plays C. gains D. drops 24. A. Avoiding B. Making C. Cutting D. Dividing 25. A. and B. but C. although D. because II. Read the passage and answer the questions. (1.25pt) Almost everybody has some kinds of hobby. My hobbies are listening to music and watching television. I am very fond of music. When I am free, I always listen to my favourite songs from an old cassette recorder. At weekends, I usually go to music shops in the downtown areas to buy good CDs. Of the famous pop singers, I prefer Frank Sinatra, Elvis Presley, Madonna and Paul McCartney. I also spend an hour after dinner watching news and documentary programmes. I particularly enjoy the programme “The World Here and There” because it broadens my knowledge of nature and human civilizations. I think that my hobbies are very useful. They widen my knowledge, relax my mind, and make me feel better about myself. 26. What are the writer’s hobbies?  . 27. How often does he listen to music to his favourite songs from cassette recorder when he is free?  . 28. What does he usually do at weekends?  . 29. When does he usually watch TV?  . 30. Why does he enjoy the programme “ The World Here and There”?  . PART FOUR: WRITING I. Mark letter A, B, C or D to indicate the the sentence that is closest in meaning to the given one. (0,5pt) 31. She has sentitive skin. She often looks after it very carefully. A. She has sentitive skin, so she often looks after it very carefully B. She has sentitive skin, but she often looks after it very carefully C. She has sentitive skin, or she often looks after it very carefully D. She has sentitive skin if she often looks after it very carefully 32. My brother is interested in donating blood A. My brother dislikes donating blood B. My brother likes donating blood C. My brother detests donating blood D. My brother isn’t keen on donating blood II. Finish the second sentence in such a way that its meaning is similar to that of the original one. using the word given in the brackets (1.0 pt ) 33. Her grandparents often go to villages to do charity work. She goes with them. (AND)  . 34. Why don’t we donate books and toys to street kids? (ABOUT)  . 35. It often takes my brother two hours to exercise at the sports centre on Saturday. (SPENDS)  . 36.Give homeless children this food. (TO)  . III. Make sentences using the words and phrases below to help you. Remember to change the forms of some words. (1,0pt) 37. He/ join/ community activities/ help/ needy/ last year.  . 38. Her sister/ enjoy/ cook/ and/ make/ new dishes/ her own.  . 39. You/ enjoy/ teach/ English/ children/ secondary school/ last summer?  . 40. We/ be not/ clean up/ community library now.  . - The end –
4. DISTRICT PEOPLE’S COMMITTEE OF HONG BANG QUAN TOAN SECONDARY SCHOOL Date of test: November , 2022 THE FIRST MID- TERM TEST School year: 2022- 2023 Subject: English 7- Time : 60’ ANSWER KEY PART ONE: LISTENING I. Listen to the passage Mark’s hobbies and interests and fill in each blank with no more than TWO words (1,25pt) 1. gets 2. riding 3. choir practice 4. because 5. happy boy II. Listen to the conversation. Then decide whether the statements below are True (T) or False (F). (1.25 pts) 6. T 7. F 8. T 9. F 10. T PART TWO: LANGUAGE I. Choose the word whose underlined is pronounced differently from that of the rest. (0.25pt) 11. D II. Choose the word whose main stress is placed differently from the others. (0.25pt) 12. A III. Choose the correct word or phrase to complete each of the sentences. (1,25pt) 13. A 14. B 15. D 16. C 17. B IV. Put the verbs in the brackets into the correct form. (0,75pt) 18. Did they eat fried chicken last night? 19. My parents don’t go everyday. They only do it three times a week. 20. You can use eyedrops and do eye exercises for your tired eyes. PART THREE: READING I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to fill each blank in the following passage. (1.25pt) 21. C 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. A II. Read the passage and answer the questions. (1.25pt) 26. They are watching TV and listening to music. 27. He always listens to music to his favourite songs from cassette recorder when he is free. 28. He usually goes to music shops in the downtown areas to buy good CDs. 29. He usually watches TV after dinner. 30. Because it broadens his knowledge of nature and human civilizations. PART FOUR: WRITING I. Mark letter A, B, C or D to indicate the the sentence that is closest in meaning to the given one. (0,5pt) 31. A 32. B II. Finish the second sentence in such a way that its meaning is similar to that of the original one. using the word given in the brackets (1.0 pt ) 33. Her grandparents often go to villages to do charity work and she goes with them. 34. What/How about donating books and toys to street kids? 35. My brother spends two hours exercising at the sports centre on Saturday. 36. Give this food to homeless children. III. Make sentences using the words and phrases below to help you. Remember to change the forms of some words. (1,0pt) 37. He joined community activities to help the needy last year. 38. Her sister enjoys cooking and making new dishes on her own. 39. Did you enjoy teaching English to children in a secondary school last summer? 40. We are not cleaning up our community library now.
5. LISTENING TRANSCRIPTION Part 1. Listen to the passage Mark’s hobbies and interests and fill in each blank with no more than TWO words (1,25pt) Mark has a lot of hobbies and interests. He usually gets up early, so he can jog before school. After school, Mark often rides a horse at the riding club near his home. Sometimes he goes riding on Sunday afternoons. He aslo loves music. He goes to choir practice on Wednesday and Saturday evenings. On Saturday mornings, he usually waters the plants and trees in the garden with his mum. He seldom watches TV because he likes doing things outside. He has a lot of friends and he plays football with them twice a week. He’s a happy boy! II.Listen to the conversation. Then decide whether the statements below are True (T) or False (F). (1.25 pts) Reporter: So Phuc, why do you volunteer? Phuc: I volunteer because it makes a difference in our community. We can encourage people to protect the environment and our community will be a better place. Reporter: Do you think volunteering is good for yourself too? Phuc: Oh yes, I’ve made many new friends, and I feel much more self-confident. Reporter: I agree. You’ve answered the interview very well . And you Mai? Mai: Volunteering is special to me because I can help others. It’s special because I can see how happy the children are when they learn. The end